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Which part of my "reasoning" are you referencing when you say it's the "gayest" you've ever heard? And, yes, "fem" is a gender-neutral pronoun because it isn't ascribing any genders to the person being talked about. I assume that you're thinking that it isn't gender-neutral because (in non-pronoun contexts) the words "fem" and "femme" both have associations with femininity and women. But you'll just have to detach that association with femininity from those series of letters and accept the fact that this pronoun isn't making any statements about gender or femininity.
Maybe explaining the origin of these pronouns will help you shift the way you think about that particular word. I chose the word "fe" as the subject form in order to parallel the singular third-person pronouns people are most used to (he and she). But then for the object and possessive forms, I couldn't make that same type of parallel because the traditional masculine and feminine pronouns diverge from each other (i.e. "him" and "her" have different endings, as do "his" and "her"). So I made the decision to make those forms parallel the plural third person pronouns instead (they/them/their), which made it so the object form ended up being "fem" and the possessive form ended up being "feir." By pure coincidence, the object form had ended up being something which could be misconstrued as having gendered connotations--because it was a homophone for "femme" and "fem"--but that doesn't mean that these pronouns are actually ascribing any genders to the people being talked about.
What are you commenting on?