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Nushid

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  • [Code Geass: Lelouch of the Rebellion] - Lelouch's Geass mechanism inaccuracy?

[Code Geass: Lelouch of the Rebellion] - Lelouch's Geass mechanism inaccuracy?

9 MAR
2013

I DID MY BEST NOT TO SPOIL YOU TOO MUCH OF CRUCIAL MOMENTS, BUT IF YOU HAVEN'T SEEN THE SERIES "CODE GEASS" - DO NOT READ IT, YOU WILL NOT FULLY UNDERSTAND IT ANYWAY.

Hello everyone,

I have decided to create something which could be a good connection between being something productive and something I like to do, so here I am.

 

Needless to say that Code Geass series is my #1, and because of that and the fact that my studies are linguistic studies, I am bound to know some literature, culture and the language processes and rules in general.

 

Some evening I realized that there is some kind if inaccuracy in the way how Lelouch's Geass is described and how it is working in reality.

We will all agree that his Geass "feature" is force other people to do what he wants. For better understanding let's paraphrase that: The Geass allows to throw our will upon someone else.
Simply, the person will do whatever you want.
Obvious, isn't it? Well, not so much...

 If we recall the event with Princess Euphemia (I do not want to spoil too much, so I will be indirect) then what we all see is kind of mistake, loss of control over Geass.

However, the order given by Lelouch was not his will! It was not even an order, it was kind of (dry, but still) joke!
So, the fact that the Geass has been casted anyway means that Geass is not controlled by the mind and will, but just by the words.
Moreover, for Lelouch his "order" was a joke, and so it was "percieved" in his brain.
If the "order" in the brain was "a joke" then how did it end up as "an order"?

Does it mean that his Geass have some seperate center of analyzing the words spoken? If his Geass "was able" to interpret his words only gramatically, regardless of his brain, then the answer is likely possible.

If Geass interprets the words by "his own", then how it works? Is there some kind of external "linguistic and grammar database" from where Geass "downloads" it? 

If we accept such a theory, then what will happen if we will give an order which is gramatically wrong?
"Me command you: Did me sandwich!"

What if we will use wrong meaning in one language, but "possible to figure out the intended meaning" in the other language?
(In Polish word "Dania" stands for Denmark, but "dania" is also a plural form of a word "dish"/"meal". I have seen a funny picture  in the internet with a menu in some restaurant or pub which had a Polish version and a translation into English (by Google Translate I guess).
It said: "Dania z grilla / Denmark from grill" - meaning the meals made on grill.)
If then we would order someone:
"I Command you: Give me some Denmark from grill!" - how would it work?

Another problem is the difference of dialects and accepted forms. For example, double negation in RP English (British Standard) is not accepted, but in the USA, especially among Afroamerican communities it is correct (they also drop the word "be").
How then, can the Geass know by which grammatic rules the order shall be interpreted?

Double negation can change the meaning.
"There was nobody doing that" vs "There was no nobody doing that"

And the last interesting aspect: the difference in meaning.
Wouldn't it be fun to see Kalen going to find her toys-for-adults after reciving an accidental order: "Fu*k you!"? :)

An easy way to get out of this problem could be a simple line of text in the anime saying that the way in which the order will be executed depends on how "the victim" understood it. But as far as I recall it, there was no such thing...

I hope I have succeeded to blow your mind. I still have some other "project" considering C.C's true name (English medieval literature included!) and the fact that the cart driver at the end of the series is someone we know very well (do not want to spoil).
Maybe some day it will see the daylight, right now it is far from being finished.

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